7-25-2015

[Romulus9]

(07-26-2015 08:10 AM)BrutalBodyShots Wrote:  So explain the payouts on 1.xy being 0.xy then. Did you look back at some of the past threads?

Example 1: On the Canelo/Kirkland fight Spyder made a $5000 bet on Canelo by KO that had a line listed as 1.58. When Rom listed the payouts, Spyder was paid 0.58, $2900.

Example 2: Maxy bet $5000 on Golovkin over Monroe by stoppage at 1.08. He was paid $400.

Example 3: TheTeddyBear put ~65k on Mayweather by decision over Pac at 1.71 which paid ~46k.

Using these examples, if I bet $40k on Kovalev in rounds 1-6 I would not have made $62,800, I would have made $22,400 which is what one would expect to make with a very obvious, "safe" bet.

Here is the best way I can explain it.

Sales tax.

If an item is 9.99 and sales tax here in West Virginia is 6%, I can do two things. I can do 9.99 x 0.06 and see how much the sales tax is. OR I can do 9.99 x 1.06 and see how much the total cost is INCLUDING sales tax.

Nothing has changed with the meaning of the numbers. The only thing that changes is whether or not the original 'cost' is reflected in the calculated result.

How much you win doesn't change, just like the amount of sales tax doesn't change.

Calculating using 1.xy shows the total result with the wager included. Calculating using 0.xy shows the result only, without including the wager. It's purely for display purposes.